Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?
08.06.2025 09:59
There's no rule.
Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.
Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.
Why should the law care about what I do behind closed doors?
Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.
While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.
Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.
You'll usually find your answer there.
What's (not “whats”) the rule?
If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.
What does it mean when someone says "I'm feeling frisky"?
Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.